CMS II Rheumatology E1 Practice Exam

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• The wink sign is associated with which condition?
• Which joints are most commonly involved in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which infection is commonly seen in women who care for sick children, mothers, and daycare workers?
• Which autoantibody is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
• Biologic modifiers used along with methotrexate for RA are best described as?
• Arthrocentesis is defined as which procedure?
• The mnemonic 'can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree' describes the triad of which syndrome?
• Which description best characterizes inflammatory arthritis?
• Hallux valgus is more commonly seen in which condition?
• Bell's palsy is typically seen in which stage of Lyme disease?
• Which cartilage is found in the C-spine and rib cage?
• CRPS Type 2 is defined by damage to a specific nerve.
• Which treatment option best describes the first-line management for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
• What is the first-line treatment for pseudogout?
• Which sign or finding is most closely associated with rotator cuff involvement, as described in common exam maneuvers?
• Which virus commonly causes transient inflammatory polyarthritis and may be associated with a mild rash?
• What is the first-line diagnostic test for osteoporosis?
• Which selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) is approved for treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?
• In parvovirus B19–related arthritis, which pattern of joint involvement is most typical?
• Which radiographic finding is associated with Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH) as a tortuous paravertebral mass anterior to the vertebral bodies?
• What is a common trigger for CRPS?
• Pseudogout is associated with several conditions. Which of the following is listed as a common association (the MC association)?
• Which mechanism is proposed as a contributing cause of fibromyalgia in current theories?
• What is the most common clinical stage of gout?
• Lyme arthritis most commonly involves which joint?
• Basement membrane is best described as which of the following?
• Which comorbidity is commonly seen with DISH?
• Rheumatoid arthritis must be longer than how many weeks to be considered chronic in this context?
• Among antiphospholipid antibodies, which is considered more pathogenic?
• Cryoglobulins are elevated in which condition characterized by purpura and glomerulonephritis?
• A 10-year FRAX probability above what percent indicates high risk for a hip fracture?
• When should methotrexate be taken for best tolerability?
• Duration of viral arthritis?
• What is the most common inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton?
• What is the second-line analgesic for Osteoarthritis after topical NSAIDs?
• Which description best characterizes non-inflammatory arthritis?
• Using the common age-adjusted ESR formula for men, what is the estimated erythrocyte sedimentation rate for a 64-year-old man?
• Which histopathologic feature is seen in rheumatoid arthritis and contributes to fibrosis and scar formation?
• Elevated ACE levels are most strongly associated with which condition?
• Which joint type is freely mobile and has a joint capsule, hyaline articular cartilage & synovial fluid?
• Which statement correctly describes the 3 Cs of joint aspiration?
• Which type of synoviocyte provides nutrition to the joint?
• Which region corresponds to a fibromyalgia trigger point in the chest?
• Which imaging modality is definitive imaging for arterial TOS?
• Which sequence correctly describes the pathophysiology steps?
• Hypermobility Spectrum Disorder can lead to which of the following?
• Which statement best describes CPPD deposition disease?
• What is the name of the sign associated with atlantoaxial subluxation in RA?
• Which of the following is a trigger point location in fibromyalgia?
• Osteomalacia is associated with deficiency of which vitamin?
• A patient presents with a target-like rash after a hike; what is the recommended treatment?
• Osteoarthritis morning stiffness typically lasts for how long?
• Which joints are most commonly involved early in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• What is commonly observed on physical examination in Myalgic Encephalomyelitis?
• Which statement about COX-2 inhibitors is true?
• Stem cells that reside in the lining of bone and serve as precursors for future osteoblasts are called which?
• Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel diseases such as Crohn's disease and Ulcerative Colitis.
• In synovial fluid analysis, which WBC count is more consistent with an inflammatory process?
• Which test is used to assess trigger finger?
• CRPS is sometimes referred to as what abbreviation?
• What should always be given with methotrexate to reduce toxicity?
• What is considered the most serious consequence of osteoporosis?
• Which symptom is least likely to be a direct side effect of methotrexate?
• Romosozumab is marketed under which brand name?
• Which laboratory test is particularly important to monitor during methotrexate therapy?
• What is the most characteristic feature of Myalgic Encephalomyelitis?
• Which condition is Baker's cyst often associated with?
• Which is the second step in the established sequence of RA treatment?
• Which virus is classically associated with the 'Fifth disease' rash?
• First-line treatment for TMJ?
• Which of the following bacteria is NOT listed as a cause of enteropathic arthropathies?
• Which condition is not primarily a joint disease?
• What is the first-line treatment for thoracic outlet syndrome?
• What duration of doxycycline therapy is described for erythema migrans in Lyme disease?
• What is the first-line treatment for non-gonococcal arthritis when MRSA is suspected?
• Which set correctly lists the three facets of thoracic outlet syndrome?
• Bouchard's nodes are classically located at which joints?
• With myalgic encephalitis, the ESR will be:
• Gonococcal septic arthritis is caused by which organism?
• Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks of which genus?
• Which is the most common viral arthritis?
• Which type of osteoporosis is due to diseases, genetic mutations, drugs, smoking, or alcohol use?
• Which option is listed as an association with pseudogout in the provided material?
• Which pulmonary manifestation can occur with rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which radiographic feature is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
• Which diagnosis is associated with keratoderma blenorrhagicum and balanitis?
• Which adverse effect is commonly associated with pegloticase therapy aside from anaphylaxis?
• Caplan syndrome is RA with pneumoconiosis; which occupation is at risk?
• Which drug class is noted as being less likely to cause stomach ulcers?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis in men?
• Which non-pharmacologic measure is emphasized in managing Tendonitis/Bursitis?
• Serum Protein Electrophoresis (SPEP) is used in the evaluation of which disease?
• What is the target serum urate when treating tophaceous gout with Pegloticase?
• Term used to describe symptomatic joint hypermobility in the absence of any form of EDS or other HDCT is:
• What is the treatment for reactive arthritis?
• Which psoriatic arthritis subtype involves DIP joints?
• Which immunoglobulin can be elevated in secondary responses and confers long term immunity or be deficient in immunodeficiencies?
• Which extracellular macromolecule acts as a 'multi-purpose glue' and binds extracellular components together?
• If MTX or TNFi fail, which is a next-line option?
• In vitamin D metabolism, which metabolite is stored in the liver as storage form?
• Which crystals are characteristic of pseudogout?
• In TOS, which structure is most commonly compressed?
• What is the most commonly proposed infectious trigger for myalgic encephalomyelitis?
• What is the most common cause of thoracic outlet syndrome?
• Which tests are used to evaluate carpal tunnel syndrome?
• Hallux varus is more commonly seen in which condition?
• Under the old diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis, how many of the seven features were required and for how long?
• Inherited genetic abnormalities that lead to changes in the structure or function of collagen and allied structural proteins describe which syndrome?
• Which dietary component is commonly associated with increased gout risk?
• Which type is most common osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?
• Bone contains 99% of which mineral in the body?
• Which of the following are anabolic agents used to build bone in osteoporosis?
• Which of the following is a B cell modulator?
• Which description best defines Hypermobility Spectrum Disorder?
• Which set of tests are commonly used to evaluate a rotator cuff tear?
• Which location is listed as a trigger point for fibromyalgia?
• During a rapid response to hypocalcemia, from where is calcium released first?
• Which laboratory test is commonly checked in evaluating rheumatoid arthritis?
• Before a therapeutic intra-articular injection, you should always?
• Monosodium urate crystals show which type of birefringence?
• Which radiographic finding represents advanced Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• Describe the typical back pain pattern in Ankylosing Spondylitis.
• HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with diseases in which group?
• Which organ converts 25(OH) vitamin D to its active form?
• Which therapy is described as a last-resort option for osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?
• What is the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates in osteoporosis treatment?
• Which component of connective tissue provides scaffolding and mediates cell-matrix signaling?
• Which pro-inflammatory cytokine is a key player in synovial inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis?
• What percentage of extremities show soft tissue swelling and regional osteopenia on initial CRPS imaging?
• First-line laboratory finding in Paget's disease is an elevation of which enzyme?
• Which type of arthritis is defined by uric acid crystal deposition causing joint inflammation?
• Which bacterium is listed as a cause of enteropathic arthropathies and is also a common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea?
• What is the treatment for non-gonococcal arthritis when MRSA is not suspected?
• Pegloticase therapy is associated with which route of administration?
• Which joint is NOT typically involved in osteoarthritis?
• Anti-HMG CoA reductase antibody is most closely linked to which condition?
• What is the action of PTH in the gut?
• Which laboratory test is most specific for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?
• Can Ankylosing Spondylitis present with peripheral involvement?
• Which test reproduces pain, numbness, tingling, and weakness after holding the arms in position?
• The pubic symphysis is formed by a mixture of cartilage and fibrous tissue; which substance is associated with its repair/injury response according to the material?
• What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for osteoporosis?
• Cholesterol crystals in synovial fluid appear as which description?
• The term 'Diffuse and Regional Pain Syndromes' is a subset of which broad category?
• Bisphosphonate therapy is generally limited to how many years due to risk of subtrochanteric fractures?
• Superficial bursae include which of the following?
• Osteoporosis is primarily due to which imbalance between bone cells?
• What is a late radiographic finding of Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• In Osteoarthritis, which sign is commonly seen at the distal interphalangeal joints?
• Which statement is true about parvovirus B19 infection?
• Runners are most commonly affected by which bursitis?
• At what age does peak bone mass typically occur?
• Which radiographic deformity is characteristic of psoriatic arthritis?
• Which GU infection is associated with reactive arthritis?
• HLA-B27 is associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis but its presence...
• Which immunoglobulin rises in allergic disease states?
• What is the FIRST LINE treatment for AS?
• Which Beighton score criterion specifically assesses the thumb's ability to touch the forearm?
• What is the active form of vitamin D?
• Which pulmonary manifestation is a recognized complication of rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which is a non-articular manifestation that can accompany psoriatic arthritis?
• Which components comprise the classical complement cascade?
• Crystal arthritis most commonly refers to which condition?
• Which of the following is NOT a TNF alpha inhibitor?
• What measure is used to assess disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis as mentioned?
• A T-score of -1 indicates which category?
• Which type of synovial fluid crystal is fine, needle-like negatively birefringent (gout)?
• Tennis players are most commonly affected by which tendinopathy?
• Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are associated with which of the following?
• Radiographic sacroiliitis is a feature seen in which stage of Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• In osteoarthritis, which tissue is primarily affected?
• Personal history of fracture in adulthood is a risk factor for osteoporosis.
• Reactive arthritis has a strong association with which infection?
• In rheumatoid arthritis, which cervical level is most at risk for atlantoaxial subluxation?
• Phosphate levels increase with which condition?
• Which imaging modalities provide definitive assessment for arterial TOS?
• Parvovirus B19 may present with a transient generalized rash, small polyarticular joint swelling, and symmetrical pain. Which diagnosis fits this presentation?
• Methotrexate is best described as which type of rheumatoid arthritis medication?
• Which hormone increases intestinal calcium absorption indirectly by stimulating the kidney to produce active vitamin D?
• Subacromial bursitis is primarily a pathology of which region?
• What is the drug of choice for long-term treatment of fibromyalgia?
• Most likely diagnosis for unilateral mouth pain with ear and jaw symptoms, plus bruxism?
• Which of the following is a bisphosphonate used in Paget's disease management?
• Which organ is primarily responsible for producing the activated form of vitamin D?
• In calcium metabolism, which is prioritized to maintain physiologic serum levels?
• Which joint is most commonly affected in disseminated gonococcal infection?
• Which of the following is included in the described management of ME/CFS?
• In uncomplicated gonorrhea, what is recommended regarding sexual partners?
• What is a common history finding for reactive arthritis?
• Anserine bursitis presents with pain at which region?
• Which hormonal state is a risk factor for osteoporosis?
• In disseminated gonococcal infection, spinal involvement is:
• What is the maximum number of intravenous ceftriaxone courses recommended in Lyme disease?
• Which is one of the two major types of matrices associated with collagen?
• Which hormonal therapy can be used to help with osteoporosis?
• What class of drugs is used as first-line treatment for Paget's disease?
• The FRAX score is used to evaluate future fracture risk. At which site is bone mineral density typically measured for this score?
• In Lyme disease with neurological symptoms such as Bell's palsy or AV block, what is the recommended treatment?
• Lyme disease is caused by which organism?
• Non-articular Rheumatism includes which of the following?
• Which of the following is a feature of psoriatic arthritis?
• According to the material, which type of medication is discouraged in fibromyalgia?
• What duration of pain is required to meet the fibromyalgia diagnostic criteria?
• To screen for hypothyroidism before diagnosing fibromyalgia, which test is commonly ordered?
• What is the usual treatment for Tendonitis/Bursitis?
• Which condition is defined by ossification of the longitudinal ligaments of the spine producing syndesmophytes?
• Which ribs are most commonly affected by costochondral inflammation?
• Osteomyelitis is most commonly seen in which group?
• What is seen on MRI in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• Reactive arthritis triad components include which features?
• Which Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis subtype is defined by four or fewer joints and is commonly associated with uveitis?
• Which type of collagen is primarily found in skin, tendon, and bone?
• What is the number one cause of death in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which JIA subtype is often RF negative and associated with nail pitting and dactylitis?
• Type 1 or Type 2 CRPS: Which description matches Type 1?
• What is the preferred test for detecting gonorrhea and chlamydia?
• Which type of collagen is associated with blood vessels and parenchymal cells?
• What is a typical physical exam finding in tendonitis or bursitis?
• What happens if oral steroids are used to treat psoriatic arthritis and then withdrawn?
• What is the first-line treatment for Osteoarthritis?
• Which immunoglobulin rises in acute infections at 3-6 weeks?
• Which therapy is NOT considered first-line for psoriatic arthritis according to the material?
• Which imaging study is best for diagnosing osteomyelitis?
• The onset of chest wall pain in Tietze syndrome or Costochondritis is often described as which?
• Which is NOT listed as an IL-23 inhibitor in the source?
• Fibromyalgia is most common in which population?
• In DISH with lumbar involvement, disc height on radiographs is typically what?
• Parvovirus B19 infection in children is commonly associated with which rash description?
• What is the third step in the proposed pathophysiology of enteropathic arthritis?
• In Osteoarthritis, the glucosamine/chondroitin combination is ONLY effective in which joint?
• Which extracellular macromolecules are adhesion molecules?
• Calcium absorption is decreased by which of the following?
• What is the black box warning associated with anabolic bone-building therapies like teriparatide?
• Duration of an acute gout attack is typically?
• Which parasite is listed as a cause of enteropathic arthropathies?
• During the Roos stress test, which description best matches the procedure?
• Which sign is characteristic of Osteoarthritis at the distal interphalangeal joints?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with fibromyalgia?
• Which condition is associated with pseudogout as an endocrine/metabolic association?
• Alendronate, risedronate, ibandronate, and zoledronic acid belong to which drug class?
• Which drug is a selective costimulation T cell modifier?
• Pannus formation in rheumatoid arthritis is associated with which outcome?
• From which site should a culture be obtained for gonococcal infection?
• In rheumatoid arthritis, the lining of the joint that becomes inflamed is known as the ...?
• Which type of collagen is found in smooth muscle?
• A 10-year FRAX probability above what percent indicates high risk for a major osteoporotic fracture?
• Which is a knee manifestation commonly seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which cervical levels are indicated by the wink sign in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which enzyme has isoforms MM, MB, and BB?
• Which agent is an IL-12/23 inhibitor used in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which type of collagen forms basement membranes?
• Parvovirus B19 infection is classically associated with which pediatric syndrome?
• Which type of collagen would you expect in basement membranes?
• Double-jointed corresponds to which condition?
• What is the most common cause of nongonococcal septic arthritis?
• Which stage of Lyme disease is erythema migrans associated with?
• Which gender is more commonly affected by Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• Which are the three major antiphospholipid antibodies (APL) forms?
• Which of the following is a classic example of peripheral involvement in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• Which plain-film radiographic pattern is associated with Paget's disease?
• RA typically spares which joints?
• Which RA treatment is the third step in the sequence (after NSAIDs or MTX; MTX + TNF)?
• Exposure to which level of oral steroids increases osteoporosis risk?
• Anti-cytoplasmic 5'-nucleotidase is associated with which disease?
• If NAAT for gonorrhea is negative, should you treat for Chlamydia?
• Tietze syndrome vs Costochondritis: which condition has palpable edema?
• Which SERM is associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis?
• Which statement best describes Paget's disease bones?
• Which uricosuric agent is commonly used as uricosuric therapy in chronic gout?
• CRPS most commonly affects which population?
• Which DMARD is considered an alternative treatment for RA in pregnancy or breastfeeding?
• Which drug is FDA-indicated for chronic tophaceous and/or refractory gout?
• Which knee-related finding is commonly described in rheumatoid arthritis?
• What diagnostic steps are used to diagnose septic arthritis due to gonorrhea?
• Paget's disease is most commonly seen in which age group?
• Which feature of rheumatoid arthritis is associated with a poorer prognosis?
• Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for Tendonitis/Bursitis to prevent overuse?
• Which description matches the widespread pain criterion for fibromyalgia?
• Which statement best describes the hallmark feature of Ankylosing Spondylitis and its typical demographic?
• Which deformities are commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which statement best describes the pattern of joint involvement in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which autoantibody test has replaced the LE cell test and is often positive in autoimmune diseases, with high titers correlating with disease but many false positives?
• Which genetic marker is strongly associated with enteropathic arthropathies?
• Which best describes treatment of Myalgic Encephalomyelitis?
• Which test is used to diagnose DeQuervain's tenosynovitis?
• When aspirating a joint, which set comprises the three core components?
• Which myositis-specific antibody is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis and may relate to interstitial lung disease?
• Gout in the 1st toe joint is commonly referred to as?
• Lesinurad belongs to which drug class?
• After failure with xanthine oxidase inhibitors, which type of drug is used to inhibit the URAT1 transporter to lower uric acid?
• Which statement is true about enteropathic arthritis?
• Which tissue is primarily affected in Dupuytren contracture?
• The Lyme titer detects antibodies against which organism?
• If methotrexate does not work for RA, what is a common next step?
• Which JIA subtype involves more than five joints?
• Calcitonin is prescribed for women who are at least how many years postmenopause?
• What will X-ray show in gout?
• Before starting TNF alpha inhibitors, which screening is recommended?
• Which statement best describes a positive finding on provocative TOS testing?
• Which ocular manifestation is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
• Common cause of tendinitis?
• What is the second step in the proposed pathophysiology of enteropathic arthritis?
• Which therapeutic approach is indicated for enteropathic arthritis according to the source?
• Which of the following is NOT a JAK inhibitor?
• Gout crystals on aspiration appear as which of the following?
• In the Wright (hyperabduction) test, the arm is positioned how?
• What is defined as an autoimmune disease characterized by symmetrical polyarthritis lasting at least 6 weeks?
• Extracellular matrix that forms the stroma of organs and is derived from mesenchymal cells is called?
• What is important for a patient with AS to improve ROM and function?
• What is typically considered last resort in treating Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
• Rheumatoid factor is positive in approximately what percentage of rheumatoid arthritis patients?
• What is the most common neurologic symptom of Lyme disease?
• Identify a trigger point location that is listed for fibromyalgia.
• Which genetic factors are involved in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which autoantibody is best for the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?
• Osteomalacia is bone softening caused by excessive resorption of calcium from the extracellular bone matrix and/or lack of vitamin D.
• Which factor tends to aggravate CRPS and extend beyond the original injury?
• Which type of collagen is found in blood vessels and parenchymal cells?
• Tophi deposition is most characteristic of which gout stage?
• In septic arthritis, which statement is true regarding diagnosis?
• Which statement is a NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?
• Serum uric acid level during asymptomatic phase is typically in which range?
• Which substance is associated with formation of syndesmoses such as the pubic symphysis?
• Which abbreviation stands for Antinuclear Antibody?
• Which diagnosis shows three contiguous lumbar vertebrae involved with normal disc height on radiographic imaging?
• Parvovirus B19 infection commonly presents with what feature?
• Which of the following is a contraindication to arthrocentesis?
• Which autoantibody is commonly used for the diagnosis of lupus and is reported in titers such as 1:80 or higher?
• Trochanteric bursitis is typically located at the which region?
• Which extra-articular manifestation is commonly associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• Which statement best describes enteropathic arthritis?
• Which of the following is part of universal prevention and treatment measures for osteoporosis?
• Inhibition of sclerostin leads to activation of which signaling pathway that promotes osteoblast activity?
• The first gout attack is typically which stage?
• Which ocular manifestation is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
• What is the most common cause of tendonitis and bursitis?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among first-line CRPS treatments?
• Septic arthritis is seen most commonly in which joint?
• Which condition is an asymmetrical, non-inflammatory arthritis of weight-bearing joints and spine, without autoimmune features, more common than RA?
• What is the severe destructive form of psoriatic arthritis called?
• Which condition is characterized by palpable edema at the costochondral junction?
• In osteoarthritis, which crystal deposition is associated with cartilage changes?
• Which radiographic finding is characteristic of pseudogout?
• False-positive Lyme serology can be caused by infection with which organism?
• Which statement is true about bursae?
• Which of the following is part of universal osteoporosis prevention besides Calcium and Vitamin D supplementation?
• Which statement best reflects the pharmacologic management approach for fibromyalgia after starting a muscle relaxant?
• Extracellular matrix that is a thin, sheet-like membrane comprised of endothelial and epithelial cells is called the...
• Infrapatellar bursitis most commonly affects which joint region?
• Lyme arthritis in the knee is treated with which antibiotic?
• Romosozumab (Evenity) exerts its bone-forming effect by binding to which protein to activate the Wnt signaling pathway?
• Doxycycline should be added to gonorrhea treatment only if what condition is met?
• On an oblique X-ray for AS, what is typically seen?
• Which imaging view is best initial for evaluating C1-C2 involvement in suspected rheumatoid arthritis?
• What is the treatment for uncomplicated gonococcal infection?
• JAK inhibitors carry a black box warning for which events?
• Olecranon bursitis is located at which joint region?
• Which molecule is a viscous mucopolysaccharide found in the vitreous humor, the umbilical cord, and synovial fluid, and acts as a cementing substance?
• Cells that promote bone resorption and remove old bone are called?
• Which JIA subtype has four or fewer joints with uveitis?
• In the hand, which joints are commonly affected by OA leading to Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes?
• Rheumatoid factor measures agglutination between which immunoglobulins?
• What is the typical age of onset for Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• Caplan syndrome refers to rheumatoid arthritis occurring with which condition?
• What is the first-line disease-modifying therapy for rheumatoid arthritis?
• What is the role of gut inflammation in the pathophysiology of enteropathic arthritis?
• Which bone cell forms the mineralized bone matrix?
• In Osteoarthritis, which joints are commonly considered weight-bearing joints?
• Paget's disease is characterized by which pattern of bone turnover and remodeling?
• Which auto-antibody pair is used to monitor disease activity in vasculitis?
• For complicated gonococcal infection, what regimen is recommended when NAAT is positive for Chlamydia?
• What is the primary regulator of extracellular calcium?
• Which statement correctly describes CRPS Type 2?
• Which statement correctly identifies the deep bursae?
• Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are defined by which RF status?
• Using the simplified ESR estimate for a 64-year-old woman, what is the ESR?
• Which sequence is standard for Lyme disease testing?
• Which statement best outlines the overall management goals for ME/CFS?
• Which forefoot deformity is commonly seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
• In myositis, Anti-SRP is associated with which prognosis?
• Which drugs are known to reduce bone mass?
• Which statement best describes the vitamin D metabolic sequence?
• DISH is more common in which gender?
• Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits which molecule on osteoclasts to reduce bone resorption?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis in women?
• Is methotrexate effective for axial disease in AS?
• Milwaukee shoulder crystals are best visualized with which stain?
• Anti-Mi-2 antibody is most strongly associated with which feature in dermatomyositis?
• Enteropathic arthropathies are linked to GI pathology caused by which condition?
• Osteoarthritis is most commonly seen in which demographic?
• Which is a subtype of psoriatic arthritis?
• Osteoporosis is best defined as
• Can methotrexate be used during pregnancy?
• Calcium pyrophosphate crystals show which type of birefringence?
• What term describes the chronic fatigue state lasting at least six months with cognitive difficulties?
• Gout is hardly seen in which group due to estrogen?
• In rheumatoid arthritis, what is the primary tissue targeted by the disease?
• In arterial TOS, which vessel is most commonly affected?
• Which of the following is not a first-line treatment for an acute gout flare?
• Synovial fluid exists as what in the joint capsule?
• Which lab finding is commonly associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• Deep bursae include which of the following?
• What gene family includes HLA-DRB1 & DRw4, implicated in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which term describes arthritis caused by infection with pathogens documented by culture or nucleic acid amplification test?
• Housemaids and clergymen are most commonly affected by which bursitis?
• Extracellular matrix made up of mesenchymal cells and forms the stroma of organs is called the...
• What does the acronym DISH stand for?
• What does the acronym DISH stand for?
• What is the primary target tissue in the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which joints are typically involved in Osteoarthritis?
• Which tissue is primarily affected in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Rituximab targets which B-cell marker?
• Which type of synovial fluid crystal is bipyrimidal (irregular) and positively birefringent, seen in hyperparathyroidism or myositis ossificans?
• Which type of osteoporosis is associated with aging (senile osteoporosis)?
• Which signs are associated with chondromalacia patellae?
• Which type of joint is immovable (fixed) and found in the cranium and distal tibiofibular joint?
• Among the listed risks of TNF inhibitors, which is not listed?
• Which joints are commonly affected by pseudogout?
• Which antibiotic is commonly used as first-line therapy for early localized Lyme disease presenting with erythema migrans?
• Loss of height greater than 1.5 inches is listed as a factor indicating BMD testing.
• What is the action of PTH in the kidneys?
• Reactive arthritis can be triggered by infections in which body systems?
• Heberden's nodes are classically located at which joints?
• Which imaging modality is typically used as the initial study in suspected CRPS to identify soft tissue swelling and regional osteopenia?
• What is considered normal BMD according to T-score definitions?
• Which bridging therapy is recommended when starting urate-lowering therapy in chronic gout to reduce flare risk?
• Which tissues primarily contain Type I collagen?
• In Lyme disease with neurologic involvement, what type of antibiotic therapy is preferred?
• Low ACE levels are associated with which disease?
• Renal or gastrointestinal involvement in rheumatoid arthritis is most commonly due to which factor?
• PTH increases calcium absorption by which mechanism?
• Which of the following is a vasomotor disturbance seen in CRPS?
• True or False: Systemic corticosteroids are a standard treatment for osteoarthritis.
• Which immunoglobulin is the secretory antibody found on mucosal surfaces?
• Which type of synovial fluid crystal is translucent and appears as stacked panes of glass in hyperlipidemic states?
• What is the recommended first-line treatment for chronic gout flares occurring two or more times per year?
• In knee osteoarthritis, which deformity is most common due to medial compartment destruction?
• Which autoantibody is considered highly sensitive but may lack specificity due to false positives?
• Which antibody form is involved in antiphospholipid syndrome and linked to fetal loss and thrombosis?
• Which statement best describes spine involvement in enteropathic arthritis?
• Which form is considered the storage form of vitamin D?
• In disseminated gonococcal infection with Chlamydia co-infection, which regimen is recommended?
• Which statement differentiates Tietze syndrome from Costochondritis?
• What is the most common facet of thoracic outlet syndrome?
• Which type of collagen is found in hyaline cartilage?
• Which imaging modality is best for visualization of soft tissue structures such as tendons and bursae?
• Which type of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis presents with fever, rash, and lymphadenopathy with variable joint involvement?
• Which option lists the three Cs used in diagnosing septic arthritis?
• Which special test for TOS involves neck extension, head rotation toward the affected side, deep breath, and pulse assessment?
• In Dupuytren contracture, what sign is characteristic?
• Non-articular Rheumatism is best defined as which?
• Teriparatide is a parathyroid hormone analog used in osteoporosis. Which option best describes its classification?
• Romosozumab carries a black box warning for increased risk of what type of events?
• Psoriatic arthritis can mimic which autoimmune disease?
• What is the initial imaging modality for thoracic outlet syndrome?
• HLA-B27 is associated with which disease category?
• A DAS28 score less than which value indicates remission?
• Which statement is NOT part of the disseminated gonococcal infection triad?
• Which statement best describes osteomalacia?
• What term describes stiffness or difficulty initiating movement after a period of inactivity in OA?
• Which parasite is NOT listed as a cause of enteropathic arthropathies?
• According to guidelines, which group should be tested for BMD?
• Which type of synovial fluid crystal is short, rhomboid positively birefringent (pseudogout/CPPD)?
• What is best for severe axial disease in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• What type of joint has minimal movement and includes hyaline cartilage, ligaments, and the pubic symphysis?
• Where should you NEVER inject steroid shots?
• Which lifestyle factor increases the risk of osteoporosis?
• Which Lyme disease stage is associated with disseminated infection?
• In managing enteropathic arthritis, what does the source indicate about treating the underlying IBD?
• Golfers are most commonly affected by which tendinopathy?
• CRPS etiology: Following what triggers is it most commonly seen?
• Which psoriatic arthritis subtype is characterized by severe destructive joint disease with telescoping of digits?
• Lateral epicondylitis involves tendinopathy at the origin of which muscle group?
• Which protein forms the main structural component of connective tissue extracellular matrix?
• Numbness or paresthesias in the first three and a half digits with weakness in grip is due to entrapment of which nerve?
• Thoracic Outlet Syndrome involves compression of neurovascular structures in which region?
• Which type of collagen would you expect to be in basement membranes?
• Which agent is an IL-23 inhibitor used in psoriatic arthritis?
• In psoriatic arthritis, rheumatoid factor is typically
• The disease Paget's disease is associated with which risk factors?
• Which radiographic finding is most directly responsible for the 'bone-on-bone' appearance in OA?
• Which hip X-ray findings are associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
• A Baker's/Popliteal cyst typically presents with which finding?
• What is the first step in the proposed pathophysiology of enteropathic arthritis?
• Where does phosphate absorption primarily occur?
• What diagnostic test is used as confirmatory after an initial Lyme disease screen?
• Denosumab is marketed under which brand name?
• The description of fibromyalgia includes pain in which areas?
• Numbness/paresthesias of the first three and a half digits with decreased grip strength indicate which condition?
• Which agent is an IL-1 receptor antagonist?
• Synovial fluid is secreted by which cells in the synovium?
• Which statement correctly matches collagen type to tissue distribution?
• Which statement about RA and cardiovascular risk is true?
• Which are favorable uricosurics?
• Chronic widespread pain in all four quadrants for more than how many months is characteristic of fibromyalgia?
• Which stage is severe and destructive and overproduces urate and tophi; requires pharm treatment?
• Type 2 CRPS is characterized by what feature?
• Bone cells that lie in lacunae and extend cytoplasmic processes through canaliculi, contacting other cells via gap junctions, are known as?
• Serum Protein Electrophoresis measures immunoglobulins along with which other plasma proteins?
• Anakinra is an inhibitor of which interleukin receptor?
• A three-phase technetium Tc-99m bone scan is used in CRPS evaluation.
• Which of the following illustrates peripheral involvement in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• What is the most common fracture observed in osteoporosis?
• Which groups are at increased risk for Paget's disease?
• Which of the following combinations constitutes the disseminated gonococcal infection triad?
• What is the first-line treatment sequence for CRPS in order?
• Lyme arthritis occurs in which stage?
• Which intravenous infusion drug is indicated for chronic gout that is refractory or tophaceous and can cause anaphylaxis as a potential adverse effect?
• Gout is caused by crystals of which substance?
• Calcitonin functions to
• Hydroxychloroquine is classified as which type of DMARD?
• What is the recommended treatment for osteomyelitis?
• Which statement is true about allopurinol and febuxostat?
• Which diagnosis is associated with positive ANA and uveitis in children under 16?
• Which statement describes the non-pharmacologic management for ME/CFS as described?
• DEXA scans measure density at which sites?
• Which joint is typically difficult to aspirate because of its anatomy?
• Which imaging finding is commonly seen in CRPS on plain X-ray?
• A T-score of -2.5 indicates which category?
• Which statement about OA pathophysiology is true?
• Osteoporosis defined as a T-score -2.5 SD or lower.
• Which laboratory markers rise with infection or inflammation?
• Bruxism is commonly associated with which condition?
• First-line treatment for psoriatic arthritis includes which of the following?
• Which crystal type cannot be seen without electron microscopy or Alizarin red stain and is associated with Milwaukee shoulder?
• Which imaging modality can reveal the wink sign in cervical spine involvement of rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which test is used to assess ACL injury?
• What is the primary tissue target in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• Which bacteria is commonly implicated in enteropathic arthropathies?
• In acute parvovirus B19 infection, anti-IgM titers are what?
• What does FRAX estimate?
• Does psoriatic arthritis commonly involve the distal interphalangeal joints?
• Which joint is most commonly involved in rheumatoid arthritis?
• What term describes small, discrete, non-tender lymph nodes felt during examination described as 'shotty'?
• Which immunoglobulin controls humoral immune responses by regulating B-cell secretion?
• Which cells lie along bone surfaces and serve as precursors to osteoblasts?
• What is the first-line pharmacologic therapy for fibromyalgia according to the material?
• Which type of collagen is primarily found in hyaline cartilage?
• What imaging may be indicated for TMJ?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typically associated with pseudogout?
• Which type of synoviocyte phagocytoses cell debris and waste inside the joint cavity?
• Calcitonin is secreted by which cells?
• Which cartilage lines the joints?
• TMJ is usually _____
• Which statement best identifies a definitive imaging approach for arterial TOS?
• Which statement is true regarding ESR/CRP in inflammatory/infectious states?
• What is considered the best diagnostic study for CRPS?
• Which finding would prompt consideration of BMD testing regardless of age?
• Gout in the elbow, fingers, and eyelids is most characteristic of which finding?
• What is the target serum uric acid level for gout in patients without tophi?
• Which statement about TNF inhibitors used with MTX is true?
• What does the FRAX score evaluate?
• Which genetic marker is associated with psoriatic arthritis?
• Reactive arthritis is triggered by infection in which systems?
• Which presentation is primarily axial in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
• In Ankylosing Spondylitis, the 'N' in the iPAIN mnemonic stands for which of the following?
• Which old autoantibody test has been replaced by ANA testing?
• What is the standard approach to diagnosing OA and grading its severity?
• Bursae are defined as which of the following?
• Which bone cell is primarily responsible for bone formation and expresses alkaline phosphatase?
• In a male patient with new-onset psoriatic arthritis or reactive arthritis, which test is recommended?
• Which statement about diagnostic imaging for osteomyelitis is true?
• During which period does rheumatoid arthritis tend to improve?
• Which treatment is recommended for peripheral arthritis with no axial involvement in enteropathic arthritis?
• What is the first-line treatment for Tietze syndrome and Costochondritis?
• TNF alpha in rheumatoid arthritis is best described as which type of molecule?
• What percentage of the body's phosphate is stored in bone?
• What is the first-line treatment for acute gout flares involving only one or two joints?
• Which biomarker is elevated in muscle injury and has isoforms MM, MB, and BB?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for gout?
• What is the primary function of sclerostin in bone biology?
• Baseball pitchers are most commonly affected by which bursitis?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an IL-23 inhibitor for enteropathic arthritis in the source material?
• Which anabolic agent is a parathyroid hormone analog used in osteoporosis to upregulate osteoblast activity?
• Purple/crimson discoloration of both anterior tonsillar pillars in the absence of pharyngitis is called:
• Which medication is a Jak inhibitor used in RA?
• The first gout attack is usually monoarticular. True or False?
• Which statement best describes the infection risk for bursae?
• Which adverse effect is commonly associated with oral bisphosphonates?
• Which immunoglobulin is primarily located on B-cell surfaces and functions as a receptor?
• Which imaging approach is particularly useful for evaluating OA because it assesses weight-bearing joints?
• Calcification of cartilage due to calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals is best described as which condition?
• Which bone cell is the primary mediator of bone resorption?
• Which immunoglobulin is usually on mucosal surfaces (secretory) and often low in nephropathies and immunodeficiency syndromes?
• Under updated RA criteria, diagnosis can be supported by involvement of which pattern?